Avatar ·

Can the expression (a == 1 && a == 2 && a == 3) be true in JavaScript?

Hi everyone! I recently started learning JavaScript and came across a very strange puzzle. It checks whether the condition `(a == 1 && a == 2 && a == 3)` can ever be true. At first glance, this seems completely absurd — how can the same variable simultaneously equal three different numbers? If I write regular code: ```javascript let a = 1; console.log(a == 1 && a == 2 && a == 3); // false ``` Then, of course, I get false. But I've heard that JavaScript has some tricks with type coercion that can make such an expression true. I know that `==` (loose equality) can coerce types, but I still don't understand how this is possible. Please explain, can this condition be made to work? If yes, how? And most importantly — why? Is this some kind of